Sunday, August 3, 2008


“If Fermat did not have Wiles' proof, then what did he have?” (284). Wouldn't it be fascinating to find out if Fermat really did have the proof or not? The great thing about this theorem is that even after being “solved”, it's still an enigma because we know that if Fermat solved it, he must have used a different method. When I got to this part of the book, right at the end, I heard dramatic music playing in my head. The problem is still there – how did Fermat reach his conclusion?

I completely forgot I wanted to comment on that too. Doesn't that just drive you a little crazy?? I want to know how Fermat solved it. Errrrr....

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